Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 02.07.2025 04:15

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

My religion teacher said that there are no atheists because in order to reject God, you must first have a concept of God, and if you have a concept of God, you are not an atheist. In what way is this true, if at all? Why?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

How will ADHD stimulants affect a teenager?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Why do flat earthers exist?

There's no rule.

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